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23

A big concern with transhumanism and immortality is that, like all technology, it'll be very expensive at first, which means only the very rich people will have access to it.

Do you think that the scientists and researchers that initially develop or discover the technology (technology being a prosthetic limb, telomere extending protein, etc. etc.) would also be able to use it on themselves, despite not being rich? Or would they be forced to use it on the wealthy sponsors that they are likely being funded by?

I'm pretty much looking for a way around the "only the rich people will have the options open to them" problem. Although this solution only really solves it for the individual, and doesn't affect everyone who's not some sort of researcher :/

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I did my PhD in a lab that builds thought controlled and mechanical robotic exoskeletons, and definitely tested them on myself all the time. If I wanted one, I could have made one and done whatever I wanted with it. My PI was generally curious and was a firm believer in 'try it and see what happens' being a good strategy for discovering something interesting. Raw materials were cheap and exploration was encouraged.

Now that I work in private industry, I have realized they have far more resources, and people keeping an eye on how those resources are used. This environment is not necessarily conducive to using your own tech in early stages of development. I also think if you invented something successful on their behalf, they would not have any issue with letting you use it for free.

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Original Poster1 point · 17 days ago · edited 17 days ago

Hm, good to know! So in short, universities are more lax than private companies when it comes to resource usage, but either way they're likely to let you use what you've had a hand in creating.

If you don't mind me asking, what did you study, and who are you working for (if you can disclose that)? And what are you researching?

Asking for reference because I'm planning on going for grad studies soon, and I'm hoping to end up doing research

I did a BS in Applied Physics, and PhD in Biomedical Engineering.

Between undegrad and PhD I worked for the military doing traumatic brain injury research. Developed computer vision approaches to automating neuropathology, signal processing approaches to automated seizure detection, surgical implantation of EEG electrodes, and behavioral testing/analysis. Done in rodents and pigs.

In my PhD I developed robotic systems to probe how exoskeletons alter muscle-tendon interactions at the ankle, which relies heavily on elastic energy storage and return in tendons to generate efficient movement (i.e. tendons act like springs). Figured out that assistive forces make biomechanics less efficient, but can still provide metabolic benefits. Done in humans and frogs.

In my post-doc I developed a low cost color-based motion capture system for rodents, and viral tools to express synthetic neural receptors that allowed me to selectively activate/deactivate parts of the peripheral nervous system. Turns out, if you enhance proprioception below the site of spinal cord injury, you can significantly enhance recovery. Done in rodents.

Now I work for a [well funded] biopharmaceutical startup. Can't tell you much about our tech, but I build automated platforms for testing muscle function, oversee/manage behavioral research, and perform surgical procedures. We are looking to treat Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy. This is all done with rodents.

Things that work in rodents often don't translate to humans directly. Would not try them out on myself unless there was reason to believe they would be safe and effective in humans (i.e. tested in primates, and safety tested in humans). Results at that stage can be difficult to predict, and... occasionally horrifying.

Sorry if this is a longer answer than you wanted, but figured someone in your situation would want details.

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Original Poster1 point · 16 days ago

No need to apologize, I love detailed responses like these. Thanks so much for taking the time to write this, I appreciate it a lot. Would you mind if I asked you some more questions? I'm actually in a similar field, Biomedical Computing, so I have even more questions now that I know you've studied biomedical engineering

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Why does mRNA have introns at all if they're never used for anything? Shouldn't we have evolved so that we only have extrons, and don't have any useless portion of the mRNA that has to be spliced out beforehand?

Edit: as someone pointed out, introns actually has some uses. That being said, there seems to be something that is sometimes referred to as "Junk DNA", which really is useless (by definition). I'll switch my question from "why do we have introns?" to "why do we have junk DNA?"

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They’re not useless. They serve important functions.

https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Non-coding_DNA

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Original Poster1 point · 17 days ago

Oh okay, I didn't know introns actually served a purpose.

Although, that Wiki page refers to something called "Junk DNA", which seems to be useless by definition. My question would still stand for those junk portions of the DNA, i.e. not "why do we have introns" but "why do we have junk DNA?"

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I can get their derivatives just using algebra and identities, but I'm not sure why there's an absolute value bar around the x in the denominator. These two are the only two of the six inverse trig operators to have an absolute value bar in their derivative.

For reference: https://www.math.brown.edu/utra/trigderivs.html

You can scroll down to the inverse section to see them

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The images on that page aren't loading, but in any case Wolfram|Alpha seems to prefer a different version. For the derivative of arcsec(x), it gives, for example:

1/(x2sqrt(1-(1/x2)))

So it's quite clear how to get from one to the other; we bring a factor of |x| inside the square root.

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Original Poster1 point · 17 days ago

Ohh okay, yeah looking at it that way makes more sense. Thanks!

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You'd see it like this: fl( x )

This denotes the general derivative of f(x). There's a small line (that I can only represent with a lower case l here) which differentiates "f of x" and "f prime of x". Is there a name for that line/symbol? Or is it just a one?

I ask because the notation for the inverse of f of x is: f-l(x). That makes me wonder whether this and lagrange's notation are making use of the same symbol

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There's a small line (that I can only represent with a lower case l here) which differentiates "f of x" and "f prime of x". Is there a name for that line/symbol? Or is it just a one?

What, as in "f'(x)"? That's the "prime" symbol, and it's easily written with an apostrophe.

From Wikipedia:

Unicode characters related to Lagrange's notation include

  • U+2032 ◌′ PRIME (derivative)

  • U+2033 ◌″ DOUBLE PRIME (double derivative)

  • U+2034 ◌‴ TRIPLE PRIME (third derivative)

  • U+2057 ◌⁗ QUADRUPLE PRIME (fourth derivative)


I ask because the notation for the inverse of f of x is: f-l(x).

The inverse of f is f-1(x), with a "minus one" there. This is unrelated to Lagrange's notation for derivatives.

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Original Poster2 points · 17 days ago

Exactly what I was looking for, thank you!

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Since the data is spread over multiple drives, removing one drive screws everything up.

Redundancy is apparently using multiple drives, and if one of them fails you can still use the other ones. But as far as I know, it's not cloning the data to all the drives, it's sharing them across all the drives.

So why does the entire thing not fail when removing one drive, and instead you can safely remove a drive and nothing will happen?

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There are three types of raid. One that is simply higher capacity and speed by spreading data over multiple drives, one that simply puts the same data on two drives so if one fails it will alert you but everything will still work fine, and the third kind that combines both.

There is one type of raid that I find pretty nifty that uses three drives. If each drive was 1TB, this raid would make your actual storage 2TB but allow for one drive failure.

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Original Poster1 point · 22 days ago

Ty for the answer! Just out of curiosity, what is that type of raid called?

That depends on what kind of redundancy you are talking about. There are different RAID- und other Configurations, that offer different forms of redundancy. There are some, that clone everything on a second drive so all your Data is stored in two places at once. In other devices the Data is spread out over multiple Drives. One drives contains a "check sum" for all the other drives. If you say Drive 1 has the Data "1", Drive 2 has the Data "2" and Drive 3 has the Data "3" written on it, than Disk 4, the Disk for redundancy (parity Disk), has the Sum of all the other disk, "6" written on it. If one drive should fail you will be able to reconstruct the missing Data from the other drives and the parity Disk.

If you want to learn more google RAID-Systems like RAID 0,1,5 and 10

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Original Poster1 point · 22 days ago

Hm okay, so in your example, id Disk 4 failed then everything would go to shit? But the other three are fine to fail?

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Does the apt package manager automatically install whatever dependencies a package needs upon installing that package? Or do I have to do it myself?

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It seems these terms are used interchangably, and as far as I can tell they're defined in the same way. Is there any difference between them?

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It seems these terms are used interchangably, and as far as I can tell they're defined in the same way. Is there any difference between them?

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RAID stands for Redundant Array of Dynamic Disks. A dynamic disk (aka hard drive) may be part of a RAID Array, but is not the RAID array itself. I'm not sure where the word dynamic came from in the acronym, since it makes the D redundant, but it sounds cool. RAID can be created with just about any hard drive, depending on the type and purpose of the array. In short dynamic disk means hard drive and RAID is an array of hard drives.

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Original Poster1 point · 22 days ago

I thought a dynamic disk was multiple hard drives tho? As in, an array of hard drives. Apparently if there's only one hard drive it's called a basic disk. That's my confusion lol. Maybe I'm missing something?

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d/dx is called an operator, but it's always treated as a fraction, ex. d/dx[x2] = dx2 / dx

It makes me wonder whether d/dx is really an operator or not. What exactly is d/dx? I'm totally fine with Lagrange or Newton notation, but d/dx just doesn't make much sense to me.

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"d/dx" is a differential operator, yes. But, for notation's sake, we define "df/dx" to be equal to "d/dx(f)". So by definition, "dx2/dx" literally means "d/dx(x2)". We're not actually treating it as a fraction; it's just that the way we've defined this notation makes it look like we are.

It becomes more evident that we're not really treating it as a fraction when we look at the chain rule for second derivatives. While it is the case that:

dy/dx = dy/du * du/dx

it is NOT the case that:

d2y/dx2 = d2y/du2 * du2/dx2
= d2y/du2 * (du/dx)2 //This is what we would get if we were treating derivatives as fractions.

The actual chain rule for second derivatives is:

d2y/dx2 = d2y/du2 * (du/dx)2 + dy/du * d2u/dx2

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Original Poster1 point · 26 days ago

That was an effective explanation, thanks. So is d/dx really nothing more than an operator? Or is there more to it, but that's not something I'd be able to understand at my level?

I certainly can't think of much else to say. As far as I'm aware, it's literally just an operator with nice properties.

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Original Poster1 point · 25 days ago

Hm okay. That's a bit relieving haha. Thanks for the help!

5 points · 26 days ago

What do you mean exactly by "change in x"?

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Original Poster0 points · 26 days ago

How much the x changes, i.e. Δx

4 points · 26 days ago

So, if I understand correctly, the question is:

If u is continuous at x, is it always true that whenever 0<|a|<|b|, |u(x+a) - u(x)| < |u(x+b) - u(x)|? (Or maybe with "less than or equal to" instead of "less than")

If so, this is not true - consider u(x) = sin x or even u(x) = x2 .

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Original Poster1 point · 26 days ago

Hmm okay. That's strange because I was just taught a "rule" that states that f u(x) is continuous at x=c, as the change in x decreases the change in u will also decrease. You can see a video of it on Khan Academy: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=l6T4RhlgkG0

And since he makes it sound like a rule that always holds true, I got a bit confused. I must be missing something

Thanks for the help btw!

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( (lim as x>c of u(x)) - u(c) ) = lim as x>c of (u(x) - u(c)) ?

The limit of u(x) as x approaches c minus u(c) is equal to the limit of u(x) minux u(c) as x approaches c of

Why is that? Is there some kind of property that states this?

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For function f to be differentiable at c, the limit as x approaches c of

( (f(x)-f(c)) / (x-c) )

has to exist. Looking at it graphically this makes sense, but can someone give me an example of a scenario where this limit would not exist?

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There's a subreddit out there with a list of all the science subreddits, but I lost it and can't find it again. Could anyone tell me where it is or link it?

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Sorry for the stupid question, I'm very new to all this stuff (it's only been a bit more than a year since I've had my first job).

  1. Using SimpleTax, I filed my tax return sometime around March this year, and I pretty much just went off whatever was written on the two T4 slips I got (I'd worked two different part time jobs), and I got a check from the government described as "Income Tax Return". I'm guessing the check was the result of whatever I had done on SimpleTax. To be honest, I just entered numbers and clicked stuff, I have no idea what was going on other than that. I'm surprised that SimpleTax can do government related stuff despite being a 3rd party. Can anyone explain that part? Are SimpleTax and other services that do this managed by the government?

  2. Also, I heard that the first time you file a tax return you get some kind of file under your name (and that makes the process simpler in the future). Would I still get that benefit despite having done it through a (seemingly) 3rd party website such as SimpleTax? I don't remember giving SimpleTax much information, I'm not even sure if it asked for my SIN number (although maybe it did and I just forgot), and that's another reason that it seems weird that I was able to get a check just from typing in some numbers: I hardly gave them any information to work with, and it's not like there's only one person with my name and age in Canada.

  3. I only got around 30$ back. I have no idea whether I was supposed to get way more than that, or whether I shouldn't have gotten that much at all. Was that amount appropriate? What exactly does it depend on?

  4. Fundamentally, I'm not really sure why we have tax returns. The money that we get back (or pay) is apparently the difference between how much you pay and how much you owe? But why isn't the amount you pay equal to the amount you owe in the first place?

Even if you don't answer all of the questions, answering even just one would help! Any help whatsoever is appreciated a lot!

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2 points · 1 month ago

I know this is an older post but I want to address some of your questions.

When you work a job in Canada your employer will give you a pay stub. On that pay stub it will show how much you earned, how much your deposit is and also how much the employer withed.

Withholding include CPP, EI as well as income tax. Your employer may also withhold some money for medical insurance or other benefits. I won't address the benefits, EI or CPP here but lets talk about tax witheld. Taxes witheld are when your employer is sending your money to CRA. This is done to prevent people from being able to dodge taxes.

The problem is that this payment to CRA is done based on an estmate. Whenever you get a new job you have to fill out a form called a TD1. It's part of the package that you do, normal on your first day. Most people just sign it and give it back but it's actually asking a series of questions that are used to determine how much tax the employer should withhold from your paychecks and send to CRA

Like all estimates, this one is sometimes not quite exactly right. That's OK. It's hard to fill out a form in advance that's basically asking you to predict the future and there's lots of events that might impact how much tax you owe to the government.

Lets take a moment and talk about terminology. A "tax return" is a document prepared on paper or through a program like simple tax. A tax return is the official government document that you use to file taxes. A "tax refund" is when the government sends you money back after you file your tax return, and a tax liability is the opposite, when you owe money after filing the tax return.

So while your tax withholding that your employer(s) send through the year are all based on an estimate, the tax return is where the real calculation happens. The tax return then compares how much tax was withheld vs how much you should have paid and it results in an amount owing (a tax liability) or in a refund.

Your $30 is pretty normal for a refund. It likely happened because you only worked part of the year and the withholding calculations assume that you'll be working the whole year. That's not information that goes into the estimate calculations so it's reasonable that it would be slightly off the mark. Sometimes tax refunds can be rather large (sometimes several thousand dollars) and so to can tax bills.

I'm surprised that SimpleTax can do government related stuff despite being a 3rd party. Can anyone explain that part? Are SimpleTax and other services that do this managed by the government?

Yes. Tax preparing firms (like accounting firms) as well as registered software companies are allowed to directly file tax returns with the CRA using a specific electronic file format. They need to be registered and CRA takes it quite seriously. There are checks that ensure the companies are retaining the right records and if there's any fraud that occurs these companies keep detailed information about IP addresses so that CRA can track who filed the returns. For the most part this system is quite stable and secure.

Would I still get that benefit despite having done it through a (seemingly) 3rd party website such as SimpleTax? I don't remember giving SimpleTax much information, I'm not even sure if it asked for my SIN number

You 100% gave SimpleTax your SIN number. It's required to file a tax return. While there is some benefits for repeet fileers for the most part the process next year will be exactly the same for you as this year was. If you use simple tax again, it will retain a lot of information like your birthday or address but that's not happening on CRA's end, it's on simpletax's end. So if you change software programs or use a tax firm you'll need to provide that information again.

There is an online account that you can sign up for with the CRA. You can then use that account to import some information into tax software. That's a fairly new process but it works fairly well.

Fundamentally, I'm not really sure why we have tax returns. The money that we get back (or pay) is apparently the difference between how much you pay and how much you owe? But why isn't the amount you pay equal to the amount you owe in the first place?

As I mentioned, it's that because when you pay your withholding it's based on an estimate that could be wrong. The tax return contains information that CRA may not already know and that your employer definatly won't know. For example, do you have a spouse, children, did you pay child care or give to charity, do you have any investment accounts and so on. All of those factors are not known by CRA or your employer, so you need to tell them that information on your tax return and it will result in a refund or balance owing.

If you only work one job, work it for the whole 12 months of the calendar year, have no other sources of income and no other deductions and filled out your TD1 correctly then the tax refund or balance owing will be very close to $0. It will effectively work perfectly, but that's not the case for most people.

If that exact same situation as above were to occur with someone who also had some child care expenses through the year. Then they could claim those child care expenses and get a "tax deduction". A tax deduction is something that lowers the total income you are taxed on (taxes being a percentage of your taxable income). With child care expenses you are allowed to subtract (deduct) them from your total income in the calculation of taxable income. So if you made $50,000 at your job, and paid $5,000 in child care expenses then you would get taxed as if you had only made $45,000. It's a bit more complex than that, but just roll with me here.

So the cash already sent to CRA assumed you would make $50,000, but only $45,000 of it should be taxed. So you've sent to much, therefore CRA will owe you a refund. If there were no "tax return" filed then CRA would have no way of knowing about those child care expenses and you would have over paid your taxes. You deserve that money back, so the tax return is what allows for that.

In another example, lets say that you are wealthy. You had a rich grate grandfather who left you $10,000,000. You put that money into an investment account and earn $100,000 investment income every year. You don't need to work anymore, but you like working so you get a job. That job pays $25,000 a year.

When your employer calculates how much money to send to CRA, they think that $25k is all the money that you earn in a year. That's wrong but you don't feel like telling your employer how much your grand father left you, and they have no right to that information, it's personal! So you know that the withholdings are going to be way to small. You still need to pay taxes on that investment income. So you file a tax return at the end of the year and then cut CRA a big fat cheque for all those taxes (likely in the range of $30,000 - $50,000!!). Just because you owe dosn't mean anything is wrong, same as getting a refund does not mean anything is wrong.

I'll conclude with this. Taxes seem really complex but they're actually quite easy. It takes time and some training to really understand them but you don't need to know everything all at once. Programs like simple tax are good, the questions it asks are clear and if things are unclear you can always google. The trick is to read each question carefully and if there are any terms that you don't understand just google them to see what they mean. 99.9% of people can easily prepare their own tax return using software like that, just take your time and READ THE QUESTIONS!

It sounds to me like things went fine and everything is in order for you.

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Original Poster1 point · 26 days ago

Sorry for the late response, and thank you so so much for such an amazing and detailed answer. I feel like I understand taxes a lot better now than I ever would have had you not written this, and I'll no doubt be referring to this countless times going into the future. I sincerely appreciate the time and effort you took to write this, and I can't thank you enough. Nonetheless, thank you!

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Just as a note, I use computing and the biomedical computing plan as the main example in this post

Do employers see your plan in any way? Or do they just see that you graduated with a degree in computing, and have no idea whether you did cogsci or biomedical?

Won't whatever job I get upon graduating from computing pretty much just be a basic computer related job that you could do no matter which plan you followed?

I suppose in the future, after you have more experience, you could get a higher level job which might have something to do with whatever you learned as result of following a plan, but that seems so far after graduation that by that time you'll have forgotten whatever you learned by taking those non-computing courses anyways.

The only way I could see it apply is if you went for grad studies, where you can immediately apply the non-computing stuff you learned and use that to go for more specialized degree in a combination of that subject and computing. But even that point, in Computing's case, is null because most people say COMA is the best option because of the math foundation it gives.

Sorry if this is a stupid question, any answers are appreciated.

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13 points · 28 days ago

I really having a difficult time understanding your thinking but I'll try my best to answer.

Do employers see your plan in any way?

If you were to graduate from the biomedical computing plan, then your degree would read "Bachelor of Compuing (Honours) Specialization in Biomedical Computing". Will employers know about this? They will in the same way they'll know about your education at all, it's what you put on your resume.

Won't whatever job I get upon graduating from computing pretty much just be a basic computer related job that you could do no matter which plan you followed?

Whatever job you end up doing is 100% up to what jobs you apply for and what job you want to do. Want to work as a full-stack developer after university? Apply for those jobs. Want to work a biomedical computing specific job, apply for that. Want to work at McDonald's after graduating, apply for that.

I suppose in the future, after you have more experience, you could get a higher level job which might have something to do with whatever you learned as result of following a plan, but that seems so far after graduation that by that time you'll have forgotten whatever you learned by taking those non-computing courses anyways.

This just isn't true. I personally have 3 close friends who are in the biomedical computing plan. They're not even done their degree yet but they're working internships at biomedical computing companies; one is doing research in a hospital, another working for a company building instruments for robotic surgery and the other working with health data science.

But even that point, in Computing's case, is null because most people say COMA is the best option because of the math foundation it gives.

Depends on what research you want to do. COMA is great for theoretical computer science for example but if you'e looking to do research in biomedical computing, you're going to find it very difficult if you don't have the necessary biology and chemistry background needed which you wouldn't get in COMA.

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Original Poster4 points · 28 days ago

Okay, looks like I was very mistaken on how jobs work after graduation if that's the case. Honestly what you said is pretty relieving because it sounds like I might be able to do what I want as soon as I graduate.

Sorry for the confusing read, and thanks a lot for the help! You've helped me out more than you know haha

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I see strength training recommended to older people quite often because it increases bone density and makes them more sturdy. That makes enough sense, but can anyone explain why exactly strength training increases bone density in the first place? Shouldn't it just make the muscle stronger? Why does it affect the bone as well?

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There are obviously a huge amount of lessons on Khan Academy for a wide variety of topics that go beyond just math, all the lessons I've seen so far have been narrated and done by Khan himself, not sure if there are other teachers but even if there are, how has Khan made so many tutorials himself? Did he just spend all of his free time making them? It's non-profit right? So he can't just make them for a living...

Just confused as to how one person could have made so many accurate lessons on such a wide variety of topics

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Non-profit doesn't mean the people working for it don't get a salary. Sal surely makes a good living off the site.

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Original Poster1 point · 1 month ago

Oh I see. In that case, who's paying Sal? The government?

Only by the sense that non-profits are tax exempt. Non-profits are viewed as public charities but run much like a private business. They have organizational structures and employees that all get paid. They're primary motive is not profit because all proceeds are assumed to go to a cause. That doesn't mean there are no costs of running the business, like salaries and labor.

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Original Poster1 point · 29 days ago

That's my confusion: Khan Academy doesn't make any profit from its users (other than direct donations), so how is this "private business" making money?

Ty for the answers btw!

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I think that, at the root, this is just based on personal philosophies.

Let's just define mind uploading as: somehow uploading all the information in your brain to a computer that can accurately emulate a human brain, thus making a non-biological replica of you (this point in itself can get complicated, ex. how do we deal with sensory deprivation?, but that's an entirely different story).

One point brought up is how we can't scan the brain without destroying it in the process, but let's imagine that we can. If that's the case, there are now two completely individual minds: the one on the computer, and the original biological mind which the computer mind is a copy of.

The original mind cannot experience whatever the computer mind is feeling, and the computer mind cannot experience what the original mind is feeling. It's as simple as that. The original mind will eventually die because it is biological, and the computer mind will (theoretically) be immortal.

Some people argue that since the original mind eventually dies, mind uploading should not count as immortality.

Other people argue that the fact that there exists another identical copy of the original mind means that, in essence, the original mind never dies.

Hopefully you can see that this goes deep into personal philosophies, and there isn't necessarily a correct answer.

That's what I think, I'd love to hear your guys' opinions on the topic.

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'mind uploading', regardless of whether it is actually you or not, is likely one of the fastest ways we could create an unfriendly superintelligence. anyone who is worried about the AI apocalypse should be very concerned about mind uploading.

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Original Poster1 point · 1 month ago

That's interesting! Something I hadn't considered. Though wouldn't you say that the development of a "conscious" AI will come before mind uploading? To me it seems like making a robot with consciousness is gonna be a thing much sooner than mind uploading, what do you think?

I had this argument on this sub already.

I wound up writing an intuition ladder and then arguing more in the comments of that article.

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Original Poster1 point · 1 month ago

This is a great read, thanks! If you wouldn't mind, I'd definitely love to discuss some of the things you talked about, or just this topic in general. If you're down for a discussion partner lemme know :D

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Firstly, how exactly do things like working at a company during your school year work? Like is working at that company worth some amount of units that you can use to graduate? If not, isn't that time spent at the company better used taking courses which will give you units?

And not to mention exchange programs...although I'm not sure how many opportunities there are for that at Queen's. Are there opportunities to travel overseas to Europe or Asia while also making progress towards your degree? Or is that type of stuff more for graduate studies and research?

TLDR What year do people start doing things other than just courses, if at all?

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I've heard New Zealand and Australia can be considered 'competitive' because a lot of people want to go, but everyone I know got their 1st choice (you list 3 when you apply). That said, I've never heard of anyone being rejected from the exchange program, you'll get to go somewhere so long as you're in good academic standing.

I was in Singapore, so traveled a lot of SE Asia between class. Some friends of mine went to Europe (UK, Sweden), Australia, and New Zealand

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Original Poster1 point · 1 month ago

Wow, that sounds pretty fun.

What's is the minimum GPA you need to fall under "good academic standing"? I'm guessing there's no absolute threshold or anything, but if you had to say? Anything above 3.0? 3.5?

It was the best decision I ever made :)

There is a threshold and it's 2.7/4.3.

Only possible issue with a GPA in the 2.7-2.9 range is employers like 3.x more than 2.x. Once you've had some work experience though the GPA doesn't really matter in my experience

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Original Poster1 point · 1 month ago

Hmm okay. Just out of curiosity, how common is it for people to have GPAs above 4.0?

Thanks for answering all my questions btw!

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Comment deleted1 month ago

Great, I'll just follow the list in that case. I'm actually planning to specialize in COMA as well, so just out of curiosity, are you planning to do graduate studies? I just heard that COMA is better if you want to do more than just undergraduate stuff. Also random question but are you in any clubs/teams?

Thanks for all the help btw! You answers tons of questions lol, appreciate it

Comment deleted1 month ago

Cool, that's good to know, also god bless you for taking the time to answer all the questions haha, you're helping a lot of people out by doing it

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You are insinuating that there is something metaphysical going on. I'm not a metaphysical person. I don't believe in a soul of any kind. You might see a copy, and you'd be right. But I don't see how that wouldn't be me in any meaningful way.

I am the flow of information in my brain. If that were to be stopped and restarted on a different substrate, I'd still consider me to be me.

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I think he's just saying that if you were to start on a different substrate (while your original, biological body is still alive), then at that point there would be two instances of you. Don't necessarily have to bring metaphysicality into it.

Let's say the "you" on the computer was also able to emulate a biological brain accurately, and thus it has it can also be described as a "flow of information" just as you described biological brains to be. The "computer you" does not share your memories or senses, so it's an entirely different individual. Likewise, you cannot experience what the "computer you" is feeling or thinking, so you are a completely different individual.

It's just that there would be two different "you"s, and some people define "you" as only being one person. And since there can't be two "you"s, they say that the 2nd "you" is an entirely different person.

Whether or not your definition of "you" consists of it only applying to one individual is just up to personal philosophies, and I don't think there's a correct answer.

Hope that makes sense lol.

Sorry, noob here, what would solar flares have to do with mind uploading? You mean the EMP effect they could have?

Also, wouldn't ideal mind uploading account for the fact that consciousness is continuous somehow? I imagine that by the time we're able to mind upload we'll already have created some sort of non-biological thing that can be defined as "conscious", and if that's the case, making it so that an uploaded mind can continue its consciousness doesn't seem impossible.

Just some speculations, I actually do agree with you that the cyborg/augmentation path is preferable

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The derivative of ax where a is positive is simply ax*lna. But if a is negative, that won't work since you can't take the log of a negative number. What is the derivative of ax where a is negative?

I gave it a search but I could only find stuff on the power rule, I'm not quite sure how to word it better. Sorry if this is a stupid question.

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ln(-a) = ln(a) + iπ

so f'(x) = (-a)^x * [ln(a) + iπ]

= (-a)^x * ln(a) + (-a)^x * iπ

which is complex. Ignoring the imaginary part, you get what you would expect.

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Original Poster1 point · 1 month ago

Wow, did not know that ln(-a) = ln(a) + iπ. Might be a weird question but what course/topic did you learn that in? Thanks btw!

Great question.

You have probably been told log(-a) is undefined. Sure, but that's because nobody defined it. Let's do that.

It turns out a good way to define the logarithm of any complex number z=x+iy is:

log(z) = log(x+iy) = log( sqrt[x^2 + y^2] ) + i*angle(x,y)

The sqrt(...) can be thought of as the hypotenuse length of x and y on a complex plane. The angle(x/y) is the angle of the hypotenuse made up by x and y.

Anyway, let's look at look at an input of z = -1. This means x = -1 and y = 0 since z = -1 + i*0 = -1.

Thus, log(-1) = log( sqrt[1^2 + 0^2] ) + i*angle(-1,0)

Looking at the complex plane's "unit circle", we can see that the angle for x=-1 and y=0 is 180 degrees = π radians.

Thus, log(-1) = log(1) + i*π ... this can be extended to any negative value.

The takeaway here is that eventually math will define things that were normally not defined. This is called analytical continuation of a function, which is covered in a complex analysis course.

Good luck!

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Original Poster2 points · 1 month ago

Wow, that's very interesting and also very complicated haha. But you explained it well enough that I was able to understand despite having never even heard of this before! Thank you!

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16

tan(5π/4) = 1

sec(5π/4) = -2/√2

Final answer seems to be -2/√2, right? But look at this:

tanx*secx = sinx / cos2 x

sin(5π/4)= √2/2

cos(5π/4)= √2/2

sin(5π/4) / cos2(5π/4) = (-√2/2) / (√2/2)2

= (-√2/2) / (1 / 2) = (√2/2)*2 = -√2

Is the correct answer -2/√2 or just √2 ? What am I missing?

Any help is appreciated.

EDIT: NEVER MIND THOSE ARE THE SAME NUMBER I AM EXTREMELY STUPID I JUST WASTED AN HOUR OF MY LIFE

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